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"Recall that risk-averse decision theories are motivated purely by intuitions about cases." Are we sure that's uncontroversial?

Also worth distinguishing risk-aversion from ambiguity aversion (or maybe you've done this already).

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It's the only motivation I've heard on their behalf. Other suggestions welcome, though!

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I grasp the basic distinction between intuitions-about-cases and intuitions-about-principles, but I'd like to learn more about it.

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