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I'm presuming the former, and find it weird that you find this "ambiguous". It would never occur to me, in reading a philosopher argue that we (society) should do X, to imagine that they mean we should impose a dictator who will do X against everyone else's will. That's just a ridiculously uncharitable reading of any ordinary moral-political argument.

For future reference, whenever I am arguing for a policy, you should take it as given that I am arguing for it to be implemented via the usual democratic processes.

P.S. Footnote 4 explicitly notes that I take my arguments here to be compatible with deontology.

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Well, it’s a bit of a pet peeve with me. I don’t see the usual processes as particularly democratic. The US has weak safeguards, and philosophers tend to ignore this. A solution that depends on the existence of an adequately non-corrupt state doesn’t make a lot of sense in an environment that lacks this prerequisite. it is much easier to imagine a benevolent dictator than to deal with the actual obstacles to implementation.

I didn’t understand footnote 4, so I am not sure what it means to be compatible with deontology here.

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